Where does this come from?

[james_davis_nicoll]

Two books written the better part of a century apart (For Us The Living and an upcoming book that I won't mention by name) have a similar plot development: after the old world [1] suffers a terrible calamity, the regions that were unaffected by the calamity cut off all trade to the affected region until such time as it recovers.

Why would this been seen as the right thing to do?

1: In the regional sense in the Heinlein and a more literal sense in the upcoming book.

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